[blml] 1NT-P..correct 1C-1S ..

[David Grabiner]

Koen writes:

> We have 3 "Club TD's" (Posting here I had to put these quotes ;) ) at
> the club who know a bit about the rules. They are also playing at the
> club tournement and as a consequence they don't have the required time
> to direct.
>
> MP's: S/All
> South opens 1NT (15-17) and West passes.
> Then South corrects to 1C and West (one of the playing TD's) tells South
> that by making this change he will score a maximum of 40%. The other
> TD's are not called because they are busy playing. West tells the table
> he keeps his rights and bids 1S.

This is an error under L25B.  South is not allowed to change his call after 
West has passed, unless he mispulled.  (If he did mispull, he is allowed to 
correct under L25A with no penalty.)

When there is a TD at the table and the ruling is mechanical (as L25B should 
be), there is no need to call another playing TD, particularly since this 
might spoil the board for another table.  I would thus rule that both sides 
fulfilled their obligation to call the TD for an irregularity.

The TD (West) made an incorrect ruling, so we use L82C.  That is, we 
determine the likely results if South had been required to open 1NT with the 
1C call treated as UI, and give both sides the most favorable result that is 
likely.

> South has 4=4=3=2 and 14 HCP. NS play 5 card majors and 4 card diamonds,
> making 1C the systematic bid with this hand.
> The final contract is 3NT by South and this makes for an absulote top
> because EW don't cash their Club tricks (East had a 6-card Club)

We need to see the hands to determine the likely results.  For example, if 
South had opened 1NT, would East have been able to double a 2C bid to get a 
club lead against the eventual 3NT contract?  If so, we might adjust to 3NT 
going down, or if both double and pass are likely calls, adjust to 3NT going 
down for E-W and 3NT making for N-S.

The 1C bid is AI to E-W, and would still be AI if the ruling had been 
correct.  It's just unlucky that it deterred E-W from attacking clubs.  (I 
don't believe that South could have known that the error would work to his 
advantage.)

> When entering the score West sees that this will be a zero for them and
> calls you.
> Asking South why he changed 1NT to 1C he tells you that he mispulled,
> but this is not really convincing to you.
>
> This is all info I remember. Hope it is sufficient. How do you rule?
> Does it matter that West is one of the club TD's?

Yes, it matters.  If players make a ruling at their table without calling 
the TD, then both sides have infracted L9B, and when we adjust to what would 
happen with a correct TD ruling, we treat both sides as offending.  The 
adjustment might then be to 3NT going down for N-S and 3NT making for E-W.