[blml] 25 something ?

[Jean-Jacques Lafay]

Jean-François Chevalier a écrit :
> Jean-Jacques Lafay a écrit :
>> Here is what happened yesterday (Teams, high level but played in clubs 
>> with no director immediately available, although one can be reached by 
>> phone if necessary).
>>
>> 2D   -    2S   -
>> 3S   -    4S   -
>> 4NT  -    5C   -
>> 5D   X    -    -
>> ??
>>
>> not that it matters very much, but here is the meaning :
>>
>> 2D was (french style) forcing to game, 2S showed a major Ace, 3S 
>> natural, 4S a fit but nothing else interesting to mention, 4NT asked 
>> about kings, 5C showed (as expected) none, 5D was a further enquiry, 
>> probably related to the SQ, pass over the double of 5D denied anything 
>> else of even remote value.
>>
>> The trouble is that opener did not notice LHO's double and thought 
>> that responder had a (very) blind spot and had passed 5D ! So he was 
>> under the impression that the auction was over, and that he was 
>> playing 5D. He therefore removed his bidding cards, which is of course 
>> normally viewed as meaning "pass". As a matter of fact, he is (as the 
>> vast majority of players) unaware of the various possibilities where a 
>> "call" can be changed, he did not try to change anything when he 
>> realized he was actually playing in 5D *doubled*, went 3 down for a 
>> loss of 14IMPs (6S was on thanks to the 2-2 split, but was not bid at 
>> the other table).
>>
>> I was wondering what the ruling should be if the player had tried to 
>> do something when he realized what was going on : he did not really 
>> call (he did not even know he had to call !), so if we judge that 
>> removing the bidding card is a "pass", then it should be inadvertent, 
>> although not a "slip of the hand", shouldn't it ?
>>
>> Jean-Jacques.
>>   
> The french regulation is very clear: the player had pass.
> The change of call is possible under 25B but only if the opening lead is 
> not faced (end of the auction period).

Well, yes, he passed, the same way that when you put a 1S card on the 
table you bid 1S. However if there was a piece of chewing-gum on the 1H 
card you intended to pull, applying 25A is clear, because there is no 
correlation between the intent (bidding 1H) and the action (bidding 1S). 
Why should it be different here ? Just because the action meant "pass" 
doesn't preclude it from being inadvertent, so that 25A applies...

Jean-Jacques.
Private PS : N'hésite pas à développer, il paraît que tu dois bosser ton 
anglais ;-)
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