[blml] Is this a psych?

[Laszlo Hegedus]

Herman De Wael wrote:

>Robert Geller wrote:
>  
>
>>We've been having a bit of discussion about the following
>>hand in  Japan.   South is nv vs vul at imps, and holds
>>       J7  754  Q762  KQ95
>>North is dealer and opens 2D (multi) = a weak 2 in either major
>>or a strong balanced hand.
>>
>>South bid 2NT, asking for North's hand type (strength/suit of
>>weak 2 or strong 2nt).   Obviously this is a tactical bid and one
>>would normally expect South to have more strength for his bid,
>>but the question is, should this be considered  a "psych of
>>an artificial conventional bid"?
>>
>>    
>>
>
>This is not a psyche. It is an asking bid. The correct explanation of 
>this bid should be "partner, please tell me more about your hand". If 
>it is described as "strong asking relay" then that is a wrong 
>explanation. It is up to the environment to decide whether or not the 
>explanation "asking" is synonimous or not with "strong and asking". If 
>it is, then the explanation at the table should be "asking but need 
>not be strong".
>  
>
IMHO this is a psyche. Psyche is when you do somethig to misinform the 
other players at the table.  With weak hand you normalli bid 2H (or 
2S,3H,..) to play partner's suit and/or preempt opps. If you asks 
partners strength, you do it cos you want to know that. With weak hand 
you do not need this information. The only exception, if you have no 
other methods (like P/C 3H) to inquer partner's Major, but its not typical.

Once my opponent did the following

4s pass 4N pass
5D pass 5S all pass

It went down 4 (NV), but we could have made 7 Diamonds as well (V)
I didn't feel, my balanced hand was  strong enough to double, but 
partner surely would have bid his long suit after 4S pass pass. The 
player who bid the rkc had very weak hand. I think he did well.

Did he psyche?
4N: rkc. He really asked partners' number of keycards.
5S: He really wanted to stop after partner had only 1 of 5 (he would 
stop otherwise as well).

But if you say it was not a psyche, it sounds very strange for me.

Other example:

A pair plays basic system with 1N: 12-14.
1N-2N in this system is 11-12 balanced of course.
An other pair also plays 12-14 NT, but they define the 1N-2N bid simply: 
invitational to 3N. (Requires partner to pass with weak but raise with 
strong hand).

Do you think they play tha same or different method? I'm sure those are 
the same, and both of them tells their opponents an absolutely correct 
explanation about this bid. I think the 2nd definition is better, but 
it's not important difference.

In a compatition the South of these pairs should bid in the following 
situation:

NV/NV

1N pass ?

32
632
T853
7654

Not so strong hand, pass is normal bid, but a player may bid 2N (!) 
Absolutely not bad idea. After 1N-pass-pass LHO's DBL is very likely and 
RHO's strength is enough for pass after the DBL is very likely, and our 
chance to find a good suit to escape is so poor. But after 1N-2N-p or 
1N-2N-3N-p opponents may cannot open.

I can imagine, that both of these two Southes tries this 2N. Do they 
psyche. The first surely does (he don't have 11-12 HCPs), but what about 
the second. They tell you correctly: he wants partner to pass or raise 
depends on his strength. It's true, but it's the same psyche :)

cheers
Laci