[blml] bizarre?
Herman De Wael
hermandw at skynet.be
Thu Aug 23 11:04:13 CEST 2007
Jeff Easterson wrote:
> Two hands from a recent tournament. Fairly large tournament, about
> 80-100 tables per session, players from many countries, not a small club
> tournament.
>
> Hand 1: Dealer South, all vul.
>
> AK8
> AJ4
> J7
> AKJ72
> J1074 Q952
> 986 K1032
> 104 A6
> 10983 Q54
> 63
> Q75
> KQ98532
> 6
>
> Bidding: S
> ps ps 2NT ps
> 3sp ps 3NT ps
> 6di all pass (ps=pass; no alerts)
>
> Before opening lead West asks if 3sp. demands response of 3NT No! He
> then asks what 3sp. meant. No idea!
> Lead was club; contract fulfilled.
> EW present two arguments. (1) 3sp. was not alerted although
> conventional (explained later); did South use this UI (nonalert showing
> that partner did not understand the bid) in bidding 6di? (2) With
> proper info would have West had a somewhat better chance of finding the
> killing heart lead? (Should South have explained trhe 3sp. bid before
> the opening lead?)
> TD checked CC of EW. 3sp. was noted as "Niemeyer Jacobi". On enquiry
> this was explained as showing both or one minor. North explained that
> he thought that they didn't play this over openings of 2NT, at least he
> was unsure. Supplementary question: if 3sp. is alerted, must South than
> take 3NT to be to play; no interest in a minor suit contract?
> Your input?
>
I have no knowledge of what a 3NT response to a 3Sp for a minor might
mean, so if they tell me it's weak(ish), then the non-alert might
suggest that opener is not minimal, and 6Di might be suggested by the UI.
OTOH, if South believes his 3Sp to be conventional, he should says so
before the opening lead. But West has nothing whatsoever to go on, so
he cannot claim damage for the non-correction.
--
Herman DE WAEL
Antwerpen Belgium
http://users.skynet.be/hermandw/index.html
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