[blml] comments on 27 procedure

Herman De Wael hermandw at skynet.be
Tue May 27 12:11:45 CEST 2008


John (MadDog) Probst wrote:
> 
> 
>>
> It's a very good question Vitold (Hi, Long time no speak). If it is a given 
> that one cannot reasonably (or legally) have an agreement about ones own 
> sides' infractions, then the meaning of the IB is "no agreement". We know 
> full well that all we are entitled to is the partnership agreement, not the 
> player's thought process. Therefore you are absolutely NOT allowed to get an 
> explanation other than "no agreements as they would be illegal" . However I 
> would expect a player to provide past history of similar accidents. "Last 
> time he made an IB it was because he didn't see the auction to date" since 
> this is part of partnership experience, and the TD should so instruct.
> 
> John

That is not a helpful answer, John.

The question is not "what does 1He pass 1He show?" because we all know 
that this cannot have any answer.

The real table question is twofold:
one: "what does pass 1He show?; what does 1He pass 2He show?" which 
has to be answered; and
two: "what was your mistake? did you not see the 1He or did you think 
you were bidding high enough?" which is the real important issue here.

My answer is that the Director needs to know the answer to that 
question. It determines his decision. Furthermore, that decision needs 
to be told to opponent before he needs to decide on accepting the IB 
(not perfectly clear, but my firm opinion in this case). Finally, the 
director's decision, in combination with a detailed knowledge of the 
laws (to which an opponent should be entitled), and in combination 
with the full system description (to which the opponent is certainly 
entitled) means that opponent can most (IMO 99%) of the time deduce 
what the intent was.
My conclusion is that it is best for the whole table to allow the 
Director to reveal the original intent to the table.

>>
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-- 
Herman DE WAEL
Antwerpen Belgium
http://users.skynet.be/hermandw/index.html



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